Guilty or Not Guilty? (PART 4) HOMOSEXUALS will NOT inherit the Kingdom of God!!!

This is PART 4 of the Guilty or Not Guilty series...If you have not read PART 1 (Who's an abomination now?) and PART 2 (WHAT about Sodom and Gomorrah)  PART 3 (ROMANS 1) I strongly suggest you do so before moving forward....(DON'T WORRY they are very short and sweet)

Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind--

1 Cor 6:9

For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine.--

1 Tim 1:10

*Some translations say: homosexual offenders; practicing homosexuals; and some just say homosexuals

Let's look at these verses that seem to clearly expose homosexuality as sin. 

The word that is used in both these verses is arsenokoites. It means male prostitute, or customer of a male prostitute, or boy molester. This does not refer to homosexuality, it does however seem to condemn prostitution and pedophilia (WHICH has nothing to do with homosexuality) 

The word "effeminate" comes from the Greek word malakos which literally means "soft. An interesting fact that might help you to come to your own conclusion about what Paul is saying is to know that Jesus used this same word in Luke 7:25 (But what went ye out for to see? A man clothed in soft raiment? Behold, they which are gorgeously apparelled, and live delicately, are in kings' courts.) 

Now as that sinks in--

I want to show you two more Greek words that mean "effeminate".

1. kinaidos which means "effeminate" or "feminine love of men" 
2.  androgynos which also means "effeminate" or "being like a woman" 

Now I pose this question to you, "Why did Paul, in all his wisdom, use the word that simply means "soft" when describing homosexuality? Paul had, in his vocabulary, 2 more words that were much more descriptive and would have solidified his point. Being a preacher myself, I cannot fathom Paul, one of the greatest preachers EVER, using this word to convey the message that homosexuality is a in FACT a sin....

It JUST does not make sense when he could have simply said, "those that have a feminine love for men" 

The truth is that neither of these words (arsenokoites malakos) have been proven to translate into the word "homosexuals". 

What is not debatable are the others "sins" these verses refer to:

1. Fornicators (anyone having sex before marriage UH-OH) 
2. Adulterers (If you're divorced and remarried-according Jesus HImself-you are an adulterer) 

* Most of the world has had sex before marriage and at least half of the Church is divorced

My point is.....

 We have looked at all the possibilities (hopefully with an opened mind) and there is no SOLID proof that homosexuality is sin.....

STAY TUNED for my closing arguments....

Just Bb